🔔 CAPF AC 2026 - Foundation Batch •
🔔 Offline Starting from 11th October, 2025 •
🔔 Online Starting from 1st October, 2025 •
🔔 Paper 2 Batch Offline - 11th October, 2025 •
About CISF AC (LDCE) Exam
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Assistant Commandant Limited Departmental Competitive Examination (LDCE) is conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
The CISF AC LDCE exam is designed to recruit Assistant Commandants (Executive) – Group A in the CISF through a departmental promotion mechanism. The exam is specifically open to serving Sub-Inspectors (GD)/Inspectors (GD) and Assistant Commandants (Temporary) of the CISF who meet the required eligibility criteria, including age, service, and medical standards.
Selection Process
This examination provides deserving CISF personnel an opportunity to move into the officer cadre, thereby ensuring a steady career progression within the force. The selection process typically consists of
Written examination,
Physical efficiency test (PET),
Medical examination, and
An Interview/Personality Test.
Exam Date
The written examination is usually held in March every year.
(CISF AC (LDCE) 2025 → initially scheduled in March 2025, later shifted to April 2025 (exceptional case)).
Application Process
The application process is slightly different from the CAPF AC exam.
It does not open to the general public, but only to eligible serving CISF personnel.
Eligible candidates must apply through the Head of their Office/Department, who forwards the applications to UPSC after verification.
The notification is usually released by UPSC in December each year.
Applications are submitted Online (through proper channel), unlike the CAPF AC exam which uses an online application form.
Eligibility Criteria
Must be a serving CISF personnel: Sub-Inspector (GD) / Inspector (GD)
Service: Minimum 4 years of regular service as on 1st January of the exam year.
Age Limit: Not more than 35 years (relaxable up to 5 years for SC/ST).
Education: Bachelor’s degree from a recognized university.
Standards: Must meet physical & medical requirements prescribed by UPSC. Record: Should have a clean service record (no major penalties).
Application: Must apply through proper departmental channel.
Attempts…
You Will Get 3 Attempts in this Exam.
Written Exam Pattern
Objective Type Exam (Paper 1)
Duration: 2.5 Hours
Questions: 150 (Objective)
Maximum Marks: 300
Subjects Covered:
PART-A: General Ability and Intelligence:
The objective type questions with multiple choices in this paper will broadly cover the following areas:
General Mental Ability
Current Events of National and International Importance:
General Awareness: Geography, Polity, History & Science.
PART-B: Professional Skill
This test will be designed to test professional skills of the candidates in relation to
operational and administrative requirement of the Central Industrial Security Force and will broadly cover the following areas:
CISF related professional skills
Law
Computer Skills and Awareness
Service Rules and HR matters
Marking Scheme:
+2 marks for each correct answer
No Negative marking
Descriptive Exam (Paper 2)
Duration: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
Paper II: Essay, Précis Writing and Comprehension
This paper shall test candidates’ ability to bring to fore his/her ideas on the given essay topic, arrange them in a coherent, orderly, concise, understandable and lucid manner in effective and grammatically correct language free from spelling errors. Further, this shall test candidates’ ability to understand the given passages for précis-writing and comprehension and their skills to summarise the précis passage and reply to the short-answered questions on the comprehension passage.
Note:
Paper 2 is descriptive (no negative marking).
Candidates can write essays either in English or Hindi, but other language skills must be answered in English only.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
| Parameter / Event | Males | Females |
|---|---|---|
| 100 Meters Race | In 16 seconds | In 18 seconds |
| 800 Meters Race | In 3 min 45 sec | In 4 min 45 sec |
| Long Jump | 3.5 meters, 3 chances | 3.0 meters, 3 chances |
| Shot Put (7.26 kg) | 4.5 meters, 3 chances | — |
| Sex | Category | Height | Chest (Unexpanded) | Chest Expansion |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Male | General / SC | 165 cm | 81 cm | +5 cm |
| Male | ST | 162.5 cm | 81 cm | +5 cm |
| Female | General / SC | 157 cm | — | — |
| Female | ST | 154 cm | — | — |
Medical Standards – Eyesight
| Specification | Better Eye (Corrected Vision) | Worse Eye (Corrected Vision) |
|---|---|---|
| Distant Vision | 6/6 or 6/9 | 6/12 or 6/9 |
| Near Vision | N6 (corrected) | N9 (corrected) |
| Color Vision | High-grade | — |
| Binocular Vision | Required | — |
| Other Eye Conditions | No pathology in retina, cornea, lens, etc. | |
General Medical Standards:
Candidate must fall in SHAPE-1 category (psychiatric, hearing, appendages, physical capacity, eyesight).
No knock knees, flat foot, varicose veins, or other deformities.
Good mental and bodily health required
Personality Test & Interview
Conducted by: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Maximum Marks: 200
Eligibility: Only candidates who qualify in the Written Examination and PET/PST & Medical Test are called.
Cut-off Trend (Last Five Years)
Year 2024
| S.No. | Category | Vacancies | Recommendations of candidates | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I (out of 300) | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I + Paper-II [Written Stage] (out of 400) | Marks secured by the last recommended candidate [Final Stage] (out of 600) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General | 20 | 20 | 146.98 | 213 | 355 |
| 2 | SC | 04 | 04 | 128.86 | 191 | 335 |
| 3 | ST | - | - | - | - | - |
| Total | 24 | 24 | - | - | - | |
Year 2023
| S.No. | Category | Vacancies | Recommendations of candidates | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I (out of 300) | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I + Paper-II [Written Stage] (out of 400) | Marks secured by the last recommended candidate [Final Stage] (out of 600) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General | 24 | 24 | 148.99 | 213 | 366 |
| 2 | SC | 04 | 04 | 136.91 | 194 | 343 |
| 3 | ST | 01 | 01 | 136.91 | 193 | 346 |
| Total | 29 | 29 | - | - | - | |
Year 2022
| S.No. | Category | Vacancies | Recommendations of candidates | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I (out of 300) | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I + Paper-II [Written Stage] (out of 400) | Marks secured by the last recommended candidate [Final Stage] (out of 600) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General | 14 | 14* | 189.26 | 250 | 396 |
| 2 | SC | 03 | 03 | 161.07 | 223 | 357 |
| 3 | ST | 02 | 02 | 155.03 | 220 | 373 |
| Total | 19 | 19 | - | - | - | |
* Including 01 ST candidate at General Standard.
Year 2021
| S.No. | Category | Vacancies | Recommendations of candidates | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I (out of 300) | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I + Paper-II [Written Stage] (out of 400) | Marks secured by the last recommended candidate [Final Stage] (out of 600) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General | 18 | 18 | 177.00 | 236 | 378 |
| 2 | SC | 03 | 03 | 161.00 | 216 | 356 |
| 3 | ST | 02 | 02 | 151.00 | 210 | 366 |
| Total | 23 | 23 | - | - | - | |
Year 2020
| S.No. | Category | Vacancies | Recommendations of candidates | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I (out of 300) | Minimum qualifying standards in Paper-I + Paper-II [Written Stage] (out of 400) | Marks secured by the last recommended candidate [Final Stage] (out of 600) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General | 20 | 20 | 166.22 | 225 | 363 |
| 2 | SC | 02 | 02 | 152.03 | 203 | 350 |
| 3 | ST | 01 | 01 | 150.00 | 208 | 344 |
| Total | 23 | 23 | - | - | - | |